Pharmacology - Kaplan - Cardiology 1. Potential side effects of Furosemide treatment DO NOT include a) Ototoxicity b) Hypokalemia c) Metabolic alkalosis d) Hypovolemia e) Hypoglycemia 2. Which of the following bind to the aldosterone receptor? a) Propranolol b) Amiloride c) Furosemide d) Spironolactone e) Bumetanide 3. Thiazide diuretics influence a) NaCl reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule b) Water removal from intercellular space by osmosis c) Increase secretion of Ca d) Aldosterone action on the nephron e) Decrease plasma triglycerides 4. Which class of antiarrhythmic acts by inhibiting K channels? a) Ia b) Ib c) II d) III e) IV 5. Used for the treatment of subarachnoid hemorrhage a) Captopril b) Nimodipine c) Guanethidine d) Nitroglycerin e) Nifedipine 6. Digitalis increases myocardial contractility by a) Activating adenylate cyclase b) Inactivating the Na channels c) Activating slow Ca channels d) Inhibiting Na/K-ATPase e) Activating the Na/Cl co-transport system 7. The use of quinidine is associated with a) Hypertension b) Increased cholesterol levels c) Hypothyroidism d) Cinchonism e) SLE in slow acetylators 8. The administation of cholestyramine leads to all EXCEPT a) Enhanced excretion of bile b) Decreased circulation of cholesterol c) Enhanced receptor mediated endocytosis of LDL d) Enhanced chylomicron production e) Increased VLDL 9. Which of the following drugs can NOT be useful in controlling the ventricular response rate in atria flutter or fibrillation? a) Digoxin b) Verapamil c) Propranolol d) Procainamide e) Phenytoin 10. Which of the following drugs can induce a syndrome similar to SLE in slow acetylators? a) Tocainide b) Captopril c) Quinidine d) Procainamide e) Propranolol 11. Which of the following drugs can NOT be used to suppress ventricular tachycardia? a) Digoxin b) Flecainide c) Quinidine d) Lidocaine e) Amiodarone 12. Calcium channel blockers such as verapamil can a) Relax skeletal muscle b) Produce vasodilation c) Increase cardiac automaticity d) Increase myocardial contractility e) Increase APD 13. Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting cardiac phosphodiesterase? a) Milrinone b) Amiodarone c) Digitoxin d) Bepridil e) Amiodipine 14. Niacin administration a) Inhibits HMG-CoA b) Inhibits cholesterol synthesis c) Results in increased VLDL d) Decreases both plasma triglycerides and cholesterol e) Does NOT change total cholesterol 15. Furosemide decreases the excretion of a) Na b) Ca c) Cl d) Bicarbonate e) Uric acid 16. Vasopressin can be useful in the treatment of a) Congestive heart failure b) Hypertension c) Some forms of diabetes insipidus (DI) d) Glaucoma e) None of these 17. Calcium channel blockers a) Decreased intracellular cAMP b) Decreased mycardial contractility c) Accelarates the reactivation of the Na channels d) Decreases intracellular K e) Increases conduction velocity 18. Digitalis increases myocardial contractility by a) Decreasing vagal tone b) Increasing heart rate c) Decreasing conduction velocity d) Increasing intracellular Ca++ e) Producing vasodilation 19. Quinidine can increase conduction in the AV node by a) Stimulating catechol release b) Inhibiting phase 3 repolarization c) Activating the Na channel d) Decreasing vagal tone e) Increasing myocardial contractility 20. The most common manifestation of lidocaine toxicity is a) Arrhythmias b) CNS disturbances (drowsiness, etc) c) Drug fever d) Hypertension e) Hypokalemia 21. A Beta-adrenoreceptor antagonist such as propranolol may cause a) Sinus tachycardia b) Hyperglycemia c) Bronchospasm d) Hypertension e) Hyperthyroidism 22. The reason nitroglycerin is given sublingualy is to a) Decrease vasodilatory side effects (eg headache) b) Decrease renal excretion c) Bypass coronary circulation d) Improve compliance e) Avoid hepatic first-pass effect 23. Digitalis is a useful adjunct to Quinidine in the therapy of atrial flutter because digitalis can a) Offset the negative inotropic effects of Quinidine b) Reduce preload c) Induce peripheral vasodilation d) Decrease conduction through the AV node e) Increase the plasma concentration of Quinidine 24. Metoprolol is preferred over propranolol in some patients because a) Metoprolol's action on alpha-adrenoreceptors add to its hypotensive effects b) Only metoprolol is active if given orally c) Metoprolol is less likely to cause bronchoconstriction d) Metoprolol is less likely to cause myocardial depression 25. Severe psychological depression is most likely to occur as a side effect of a) Terbutaline b) Propranolol c) Alpha-methyldopa d) Reserpine e) Guanethidine 26. Which of the following is a reasonable estimate of the t1/2 (half life) of digoxin in a normal individual? a) 30 seconds b) 8 minutes c) 4 hours d) 1.5 days e) 3 weeks 27. Ventricular tachycardia associated with acute myocardial infaction is best managed by IV administration of a) Nitroprusside b) Digitalis c) Quinidine d) Lidocaine e) Atropine 28. Arrhythmias secondary to hyperthyroidism are best controlled with a) Verapamil b) Propranolol c) Digitalis d) Bretylium e) Tocainide 29. The mechanism of action of lavastatin is to a) Increase 7-alpha-hydroxylase activity b) Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase c) Increase lipoprotein lipase d) Inhibit hormone sensitive lipase e) Increase lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase 30. Acetazolamide may be useful in treating a) Congestive heart failure b) Cirrhosis of the liver c) Edema of pregnancy d) Glaucoma e) Hypertension ----------Key---------- 1. (e) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (e) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (e) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (e) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d)