Phamacology - Kaplan - Anti-Infectives 1. Decreased visual acuity and red green color blindness are dose related toxic effects of a) Rifampin b) Isoniazid c) Ethambutol d) Cycloserine e) Pyrazinamide 2. The antimalarial agent used to treat the persistent liver phase of P. vivax is a) Chloroquine b) Primaquine c) Quinine d) "Chloroquine" and "Primaquine" e) "Chloroquine" and "Primaquine" and "Quinine" 3. All of the following have good anaerobic activity EXCEPT a) Penicillin G b) Cotrimoxazole c) Clindamycin d) Chloramphenicol e) Metronidazole 4. Ribavirin a) Competitive inhibitor of retroviral reverse transcriptase b) Prevents the uncoating of viral nucleocapsid c) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase d) Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase e) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase without need for metabolic activation 5. Zidovudine (AZT) a) Competitive inhibitor of retroviral reverse transcriptase b) Prevents the uncoating of viral nucleocapsid c) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase d) Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase e) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase without need for metabolic activation 6. Rimantadine a) Competitive inhibitor of retroviral reverse transcriptase b) Prevents the uncoating of viral nucleocapsid c) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase d) Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase e) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase without need for metabolic activation 7. Ganciclovir a) Competitive inhibitor of retroviral reverse transcriptase b) Prevents the uncoating of viral nucleocapsid c) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase d) Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase e) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase without need for metabolic activation 8. Foscarnet a) Competitive inhibitor of retroviral reverse transcriptase b) Prevents the uncoating of viral nucleocapsid c) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase d) Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase e) Inhibits viral DNA polymerase without need for metabolic activation 9. 5-flucytosine a) Inhibits 14-alpha-demethylation of lanosterol to ergosterol b) Binds to sterols in fungal cell membranes c) Prodrug converted to active drug by a fungal deaminase d) Unknown e) Inhibits mitotic spindle formation similar to colchicine 10. Amphotericin B a) Inhibits 14-alpha-demethylation of lanosterol to ergosterol b) Binds to sterols in fungal cell membranes c) Prodrug converted to active drug by a fungal deaminase d) Unknown e) Inhibits mitotic spindle formation similar to colchicine 11. Ketoconazole a) Inhibits 14-alpha-demethylation of lanosterol to ergosterol b) Binds to sterols in fungal cell membranes c) Prodrug converted to active drug by a fungal deaminase d) Unknown e) Inhibits mitotic spindle formation similar to colchicine 12. Griseofulvin a) Inhibits 14-alpha-demethylation of lanosterol to ergosterol b) Binds to sterols in fungal cell membranes c) Prodrug converted to active drug by a fungal deaminase d) Unknown e) Inhibits mitotic spindle formation similar to colchicine 13. Penicillin & streptomycin a) Decreased toxicity b) Polymicrobial infection c) Synergy d) Decreased emergence of resistance e) Antagonism 14. Clindamycin & Gentamicin a) Decreased toxicity b) Polymicrobial infection c) Synergy d) Decreased emergence of resistance e) Antagonism 15. Isoniazid & Ethambutol a) Decreased toxicity b) Polymicrobial infection c) Synergy d) Decreased emergence of resistance e) Antagonism 16. Penicillin & Tetracycline a) Decreased toxicity b) Polymicrobial infection c) Synergy d) Decreased emergence of resistance e) Antagonism 17. Amikacin a) Aplastic anemia b) Peripheral neuritis c) Stevens-Johnson syndrome d) Platelet dysfunction e) Acute tubular necrosis 18. Sulfadiazine a) Aplastic anemia b) Peripheral neuritis c) Stevens-Johnson syndrome d) Platelet dysfunction e) Acute tubular necrosis 19. Chloramphenicol a) Aplastic anemia b) Peripheral neuritis c) Stevens-Johnson syndrome d) Platelet dysfunction e) Acute tubular necrosis 20. Cefamandole a) Aplastic anemia b) Peripheral neuritis c) Stevens-Johnson syndrome d) Platelet dysfunction e) Acute tubular necrosis 21. Isoniazid a) Aplastic anemia b) Peripheral neuritis c) Stevens-Johnson syndrome d) Platelet dysfunction e) Acute tubular necrosis 22. Amikacin a) Although useful in UTI, poor prostatic penetration b) Excellent activity against gram(-) rods, but poor oral absorption c) Oral absorption greatly decreased by concomitant ingestion of milk d) Well absorbed orally; but, when given in large doses may crystallize in the urine 23. Nalidixic acid a) Although useful in UTI, poor prostatic penetration b) Excellent activity against gram(-) rods, but poor oral absorption c) Oral absorption greatly decreased by concomitant ingestion of milk d) Well absorbed orally; but, when given in large doses may crystallize in the urine 24. Sulfa drug a) Although useful in UTI, poor prostatic penetration b) Excellent activity against gram(-) rods, but poor oral absorption c) Oral absorption greatly decreased by concomitant ingestion of milk d) Well absorbed orally; but, when given in large doses may crystallize in the urine 25. Tetracycline a) Although useful in UTI, poor prostatic penetration b) Excellent activity against gram(-) rods, but poor oral absorption c) Oral absorption greatly decreased by concomitant ingestion of milk d) Well absorbed orally; but, when given in large doses may crystallize in the urine 26. Stibogluconate a) Inhibition of oxidative phoshorylation b) Inhibition of phosphofructokinase c) Disappearance of cytoplasmic microtubules 27. Niclosamide a) Inhibition of oxidative phoshorylation b) Inhibition of phosphofructokinase c) Disappearance of cytoplasmic microtubules 28. Mebendazole a) Inhibition of oxidative phoshorylation b) Inhibition of phosphofructokinase c) Disappearance of cytoplasmic microtubules 29. Amphotericin B a) Vestibular ototoxicity b) Auditory ototoxicity c) Cinchonism d) Hemolysis in G-6-PD deficiency patients e) Interstitial nephritis f) Disulfiram-like reaction g) Cholestatic jaundice h) Normochromic normocytic anemia i) Discoloration of contact lenses j) Low renal levels due to a dipeptidase 30. Minocycline a) Vestibular ototoxicity b) Auditory ototoxicity c) Cinchonism d) Hemolysis in G-6-PD deficiency patients e) Interstitial nephritis f) Disulfiram-like reaction g) Cholestatic jaundice h) Normochromic normocytic anemia i) Discoloration of contact lenses j) Low renal levels due to a dipeptidase 31. Erythromycin estolate a) Vestibular ototoxicity b) Auditory ototoxicity c) Cinchonism d) Hemolysis in G-6-PD deficiency patients e) Interstitial nephritis f) Disulfiram-like reaction g) Cholestatic jaundice h) Normochromic normocytic anemia i) Discoloration of contact lenses j) Low renal levels due to a dipeptidase ----------Key---------- 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (e) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (e) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (e) 17. (e) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (h) 30. (a) 31. (g)