Neuropharmacology 1999 / 02 1. Produces its effect by blocking Na++ channels a) Phenytoin b) Tiagabine (oral anticonvulsant) c) Haloperidol d) Bupropion e) Thiopental 2. Produces it's effect by blocking the reuptake of GABA a) Phenytoin b) Tiagabine (oral anticonvulsant) c) Haloperidol d) Bupropion e) Thiopental 3. Should be avoided because it causes adverse extrapyramidal effects a) Phenytoin b) Tiagabine (oral anticonvulsant) c) Haloperidol d) Bupropion e) Thiopental 4. High potential for producting seizures in epileptics a) Phenytoin b) Tiagabine (oral anticonvulsant) c) Haloperidol d) Bupropion e) Thiopental 5. Induces anesthesia a) Phenytoin b) Tiagabine (oral anticonvulsant) c) Haloperidol d) Bupropion e) Thiopental 6. Inhibits the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine a) Cocaine b) Diazepam c) Amatidine d) Talcapone e) Levodopa 7. Used for preoperative anxiety a) Cocaine b) Diazepam c) Amatidine d) Talcapone e) Levodopa 8. Increases dopamine release from intact neurons a) Cocaine b) Diazepam c) Amatidine d) Talcapone e) Levodopa 9. Preserves L-Dopa from COMT metabolism a) Cocaine b) Diazepam c) Amatidine d) Talcapone e) Levodopa 10. Precursor of dopamine a) Cocaine b) Diazepam c) Amatidine d) Talcapone e) Levodopa 11. Blocks glycine postsynaptic inhibition a) Strychnine b) LSD c) Psychological dependence d) Thioridazine e) Clozapine 12. Is an agonist for presynaptic serotonin receptors in the midbrain a) Strychnine b) LSD c) Psychological dependence d) Thioridazine e) Clozapine 13. What kind of dependence is needed for optimal state of mental well-being a) Strychnine b) LSD c) Psychological dependence d) Thioridazine e) Clozapine 14. A 25 year old bizarre, agitated and socially withdrawn male was previously treated with chlorpromazine. He suffers extrapyramidal effects. What is the best choice for initial therapy for this patient a) Strychnine b) LSD c) Psychological dependence d) Thioridazine e) Clozapine 15. Is most likely to relieve the symptoms of withdrawal and unresponsiveness in the patient mentioned here. A 25 year old bizarre, agitated and socially withdrawn male was previously treated with chlorpromazine. He suffers extrapyramidal effects. a) Strychnine b) LSD c) Psychological dependence d) Thioridazine e) Clozapine 16. Associated with male sexual dysfunction a) Fluoxetine (Prozac) b) Amytriptoline c) Promethezine d) Pharmacodynamic tolerance e) Compulsive drug use 17. Produces pronounced anticholinergic side effects a) Fluoxetine (Prozac) b) Amytriptoline c) Promethezine d) Pharmacodynamic tolerance e) Compulsive drug use 18. Used in the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting a) Fluoxetine (Prozac) b) Amytriptoline c) Promethezine d) Pharmacodynamic tolerance e) Compulsive drug use 19. Condition characterized by decreased repsonse to a drug due to decreased tissue sensitivity a) Fluoxetine (Prozac) b) Amytriptoline c) Promethezine d) Pharmacodynamic tolerance e) Compulsive drug use 20. Condition characterized by continued use of a drug despite adverse consequences a) Fluoxetine (Prozac) b) Amytriptoline c) Promethezine d) Pharmacodynamic tolerance e) Compulsive drug use 21. Most appropriate drug for short-term oral treatment of severe pain a) Meperidine b) Naltrexone or Naloxone c) Hydrocodone d) Clomipramine e) Carbamazepine 22. Most appropriate drug to promote abstinence in a former opioid abuser a) Meperidine b) Naltrexone or Naloxone c) Hydrocodone d) Clomipramine e) Carbamazepine 23. What is the most appropriate for short-term oral treament of moderate pain a) Meperidine b) Naltrexone or Naloxone c) Hydrocodone d) Clomipramine e) Carbamazepine 24. A 34 year old woman takes several showers and cleans the stove for two hours. What is the best drug for obsessive-compulsive behavior a) Meperidine b) Naltrexone or Naloxone c) Hydrocodone d) Clomipramine e) Carbamazepine 25. A 34 year old woman with hyperactivity, insomnia, happy mood, nausea, headaches, dizziness and fatigue. What drug should be used a) Meperidine b) Naltrexone or Naloxone c) Hydrocodone d) Clomipramine e) Carbamazepine 26. A patient uses phenobarbital and phenytoin three times a day to manage his grand mal seizures. Which vitamin would be affected by this regimen a) Folic acid b) Phenylephrine c) Ethosuxamide d) Indomethacin e) Ketorolac 27. A patient has a poor response to fluoxetine (oral antidepressant which prevents serotonin uptake). He takes tranylcypromine as an alternative. He now has a cold, fever, headache and runny nose. Which over-the-counter drug should be avoided a) Folic acid b) Phenylephrine c) Ethosuxamide d) Indomethacin e) Ketorolac 28. Decreases the conductance of Calcim channels a) Folic acid b) Phenylephrine c) Ethosuxamide d) Indomethacin e) Ketorolac 29. Should be used routinely as an analgesic a) Folic acid b) Phenylephrine c) Ethosuxamide d) Indomethacin e) Ketorolac 30. True or False: Only a certain amount of alcohol can be metabolized per hour a) True b) False 31. An opioid user breaks his tibia and femur and refuses opioids. What's the next best choice a) Ketorolac b) Morphine c) Zolpidem d) Meperidine e) Paroxetine 32. When given to a recumbant (reclining or lying down) patient in pain, this drug decreases the respiratory rate a) Ketorolac b) Morphine c) Zolpidem d) Meperidine e) Paroxetine 33. True or False: Enkephalin is a CNS neurotransmitter a) True b) False 34. A 34 year old carpenter has trouble falling asleep. What drug should be used a) Ketorolac b) Morphine c) Zolpidem d) Meperidine e) Paroxetine 35. Most frequent side effect is dizziness a) Ketorolac b) Morphine c) Zolpidem d) Meperidine e) Paroxetine 36. Which two (2) drugs are the most likely to produce serotonin syndrome a) Ketorolac b) Morphine c) Zolpidem d) Meperidine e) Paroxetine 37. Which drug should a patient with tonic-clonic seizures take a) Lorazepam b) Potency c) Sibutramine d) Highly lipid-soluble drugs e) Serotonin 38. The MAC of an anesthetic drug is most directly related to what property of a drug a) Lorazepam b) Potency c) Sibutramine d) Highly lipid-soluble drugs e) Serotonin 39. Main clinical use for this drug is weight loss a) Lorazepam b) Potency c) Sibutramine d) Highly lipid-soluble drugs e) Serotonin 40. Which kind of drugs cross the blood-brain barrier to the greatest extent a) Lorazepam b) Potency c) Sibutramine d) Highly lipid-soluble drugs e) Serotonin 41. The Bio-Amine theory states that depression is caused by too little of this component in the CNS a) Lorazepam b) Potency c) Sibutramine d) Highly lipid-soluble drugs e) Serotonin 42. An adverse effect of this drug induces agranulocytosis. A condition characterized by pronounced leukopenia or greatly reduced number of polymophonuclear leukocytes. Infected ulcers are likely to develop in the throat, intestinal tract, and other mucous membranes as well as the skin. a) Clozapine b) Lithium c) LSD d) Toluene e) Lorazepam (Benzodiazepine) 43. Fatigue is the most common side effect a) Clozapine b) Lithium c) LSD d) Toluene e) Lorazepam (Benzodiazepine) 44. Does not have a high propensity to cause physical dependence a) Clozapine b) Lithium c) LSD d) Toluene e) Lorazepam (Benzodiazepine) 45. A 15 year old boy develops bone marrow suppression as a consequence of chronic drug use. Which drug is most likely involved a) Clozapine b) Lithium c) LSD d) Toluene e) Lorazepam (Benzodiazepine) 46. Drowsiness is the most common side effect of this drug used for anxiety and status epilepticus a) Clozapine b) Lithium c) LSD d) Toluene e) Lorazepam (Benzodiazepine) 47. What type of dependence is developed when a patient experiences withdrawal symptoms from a drug a) Physical b) Psychological c) Social d) Tolerance syndrome e) ABstinence syndrome 48. A 5 year old child has epilepsy and is noted to have hyperplasia of the gums. Which drug is responsible a) Phenytoin b) Antipsychotic drugs c) Bromocriptine d) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) e) Secobarbital (Seconal) 49. Typically produce their effects by blocking 5HT-2 receptors a) Phenytoin b) Antipsychotic drugs c) Bromocriptine d) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) e) Secobarbital (Seconal) 50. This drug controls "end-of-dose" symptoms when added to the therapy. It inhibits prolactin secretion and retards tumor growth in hyperprolactinemia. It's an agonist at dopamine receptors, so it's also used in Parkinson's disease. a) Phenytoin b) Antipsychotic drugs c) Bromocriptine d) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) e) Secobarbital (Seconal) 51. Which drug is less likely to potentiate the effects of alcohol a) Buspirone (Buspar) b) Diazepam 52. Sally, a 5 year old, is "not all there". She exhibits brief lapses in consciousness. Her EEG shows wake activity of three spikes (3) per second. What drug should be used a) Phenytoin b) Antipsychotic drugs c) Bromocriptine d) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) e) Secobarbital (Seconal) 53. Sally, a 5 year old, is "not all there". She exhibits brief lapses in consciousness. Her EEG shows wake activity of three spikes (3) per second. The physician should measure blood levels of this drug three (3) weeks after administration. What is the drug a) Phenytoin b) Antipsychotic drugs c) Bromocriptine d) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) e) Secobarbital (Seconal) 54. Death is the most likely result of withdrawal from this drug a) Phenytoin b) Antipsychotic drugs c) Bromocriptine d) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) e) Secobarbital (Seconal) 55. A patient is taking valproic acid and begins taking a second drug. The second drug's metabolism is inhibited by valproic acid and displaces it from protein-binding sites resulting in markedly increased plasma levels of the second drug. What is the second drug a) Phenytoin b) Lithium c) Fluoxetine (antidepressant) d) Ethanol e) Unconsciousness 56. This drug prevents the recycling of inositol phophate. a) Phenytoin b) Lithium c) Fluoxetine (antidepressant) d) Ethanol e) Unconsciousness 57. The mechanism of therapeutic action of this drug is related to the inhibition of serotonin uptake. a) Phenytoin b) Lithium c) Fluoxetine (antidepressant) d) Ethanol e) Unconsciousness 58. This is used to treat methanol intoxicated patients by slowing down methanol metabolism. a) Phenytoin b) Lithium c) Fluoxetine (antidepressant) d) Ethanol e) Unconsciousness 59. A non-tolerant person with a blood alcohol level of 0.4% would most likely exhibit this condition a) Phenytoin b) Lithium c) Fluoxetine (antidepressant) d) Ethanol e) Unconsciousness 60. This drug's length of duration is attributed to redistribution. It rapidly achieves therapeutic plasma concentration after IV injection, inducing hypnosis within 30 seconds. It distributes into fatty tissues in concentrations that are 6-12 times than that of plasma concentrations. a) Thiopental b) NO c) Halothane d) Tyramine e) Benzodiazepine 61. This drug is NOT potent enough to produce surgical anesthesia a) Thiopental b) NO c) Halothane d) Tyramine e) Benzodiazepine 62. It mechanism of action is dissolution in nerve cell membranes and distribution of ion channels a) Thiopental b) NO c) Halothane d) Tyramine e) Benzodiazepine 63. A patient taking phenelzine, for major depression, should avoid which substance because a hypotensive crisis can result. The avoided substance is contained in beer, wine, sherry, hard liquor, aged cheese, soy sauce, some beans, smoked meats, pickled meats, fish, sausage, bologna, pepperoni, salami, bananas, avocados and any over-ripe fruit. a) Thiopental b) NO c) Halothane d) Tyramine e) Benzodiazepine 64. They produce their antianxiety effect by indirectly increasing calcium conductance a) Thiopental b) NO c) Halothane d) Tyramine e) Benzodiazepine 65. A 62 year old man complains of worry and tension. He has been drinking 6-12 beers daily for the last 45 years. What drug should be prescribed a) Lorazepam (BZD) b) Neuromodulators c) Benzodiazepine d) Oxazepam (BZD) e) Methanol 66. They function by increasing the effect of a neurotransmitter on post-synaptic potential a) Lorazepam (BZD) b) Neuromodulators c) Benzodiazepine d) Oxazepam (BZD) e) Methanol 67. These drugs lack as an ideal hypnotic because they cause no disturbance to normal sleep patterns a) Lorazepam (BZD) b) Neuromodulators c) Benzodiazepine d) Oxazepam (BZD) e) Methanol 68. If a hypnotic produces REM rebound, would it be harder or easier for the patient to discontinue the drug's use a) Harder b) Easier 69. Fentanyl: How is it most frequently administered a) Transdermally b) Parenterally c) Orally d) Epidural at the spinal level e) Rectal suppositories 70. Fentanyl: What is it's duration of action (2 correct answers) a) A few days (if transdermally administered) b) 1 hour (if parenterally administered) c) A few weeks d) A few months 71. Fentanyl: Is it more or less potent than morphine a) More b) Less 72. Fentanyl: Primary clinical use a) Analgesic for chronic or post-operative pain b) Antitussive c) Antiemetic d) Analgesic for acute or pre-operative pain e) Weight control 73. Fentanyl: What effects occur when used with alcohol (choose 3 answers) a) Apnea b) CNS depression c) Hypoventilation d) Agranulocytosis e) Weight gain 74. Fentanyl: It is contraindicated in patients experiencing (choose 2 answers) a) Diarrhea b) Respiratory depression c) Hypotension d) Congestive heart failure e) Hypertension 75. Codeine: How is it most frequently administered a) Transdermally b) Parenterally c) Orally d) Epidural at the spinal level e) Rectal suppositories 76. Codeine: Is it more or less potent than morphine a) More b) Less 77. Codeine: Clinical use at high doses a) Analgesic for mild to moderate pain b) Antitussive c) Antidiarrhea d) Antiepileptic e) Antidepressant 78. Codeine: Clinical use at low doses a) Analgesic for mild to moderate pain b) Antitussive c) Antidiarrhea d) Antiepileptic e) Antidepressant 79. Codeine: What is it's main side effect a) Constipation b) CNS depression c) Hypoventilation d) diarrhea e) Weight gain 80. Post surgical anesthesia recovery would be most rapid at which MAC and Lambda values a) MAC = 20 and Lambda = 0.5 b) MAC = 40 and Lambda = 0.9 c) MAC = 10 and Lambda = 0.8 d) MAC = 50 and Lambda = 0.7 e) MAC = 35 and Lambda = 0.6 81. What are the factors that may lead to compulsive drug use (select all correct answers) a) Escape from reality b) Sense of euphoria c) Escape from high levels of anxiety d) Peer pressure e) Relief from physical pain f) Poor self image g) Enhanced introspection or creativity h) Novel experience ----------Key---------- 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (e) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (e) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (e) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (e) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (e) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) (e) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (e) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (e) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (e) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (e) 60. (a) 61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (e) 65. (a) (d) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (a) (b) 71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (a) (b) (c) 74. (a) (b) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (a) 81. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h)